quietmedic Posted November 13, 2017 Share Posted November 13, 2017 This is a young adult who was struck in the knee. Patient was ambulatory with very minimal antalgic gait. As you can see in xray (zoomed in over fibular lateral condyle), noted a very faint vertical linear lucnecy in the lateral condyle, nontransverse. Patient had concordant tenderness overlying, but no varus/valgus laxity or pain. Given the underwhelming clinical presentation and essentially minimal nontransverse fx with no avulsion, would you enforce knee immobilizer and crutches (to avoid LCL/ fib condyle avulsion)? Or could patient do with RICE and strict instructions to avoid anything but very gentle walking? Thanks all.... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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