Asked to give verbal consent for treatment without a diagnosis, clinical exam findings or treatment plan.

[entpac]

I am reaching out to the PA community to see if anyone has come across this situation before.  A patient is admitted to a hospital in another state.  No family members were contacted by any staff at that hospital.  Reason for admission is unknown.  Presumably, for a higher level of care, the patient is transferred to another hospital in that state.  A call is placed by the second hospital's admission staff representative to a family member residing in another state.  The family member is asked to give verbal "Consent for treatment."  No diagnosis is given; diagnosis is not provided when requested by the family member.  When asked why the patient is not able to give consent, the family member is told the patient is "sleeping."  When asked if the patient could be aroused,  the admission staff refuses to answer and states they will have to place this consent in "pending status."   

Does this follow appropriate protocol? 

 

[rev ronin]

1 hour ago, entpac said:

Does this follow appropriate protocol?

Uninformed Consent doesn't seem to benefit anyone. I certainly don't think it would protect anyone from anything.

[SedRate]

1 hour ago, entpac said:

I am reaching out to the PA community to see if anyone has come across this situation before.  A patient is admitted to a hospital in another state.  No family members were contacted by any staff at that hospital.  Reason for admission is unknown.  Presumably, for a higher level of care, the patient is transferred to another hospital in that state.  A call is placed by the second hospital's admission staff representative to a family member residing in another state.  The family member is asked to give verbal "Consent for treatment."  No diagnosis is given; diagnosis is not provided when requested by the family member.  When asked why the patient is not able to give consent, the family member is told the patient is "sleeping."  When asked if the patient could be aroused,  the admission staff refuses to answer and states they will have to place this consent in "pending status."   

Does this follow appropriate protocol? 

 

No. If the pt is not able to provide their own informed consent and not in a life threatening state, consent from MPOA needs to be obtained. The reasoning for request for treatment (aka diagnosis) should be given. The patient sleeping is not a reason for not obtaining consent. Something sounds amiss here.