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Will someone please explain how a Weber test will lateralize to the affected ear with conductive hearing loss? I'm not understanding the concept. It makes sense that it would lateralize away from the side with sensorineural loss, but lateralizing towards conductive loss? don't get that...

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Sorry if the answer doesn't satisfy you, but that is the answer. Plug one of your ears and do the webers, or you can even demonstrate this by plugging an ear and humming. Where do you hear the greatest sound?

 

ETA: Note, it's note going to be a huge difference, but if you will notice that the sound feels just off of midline.

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http://www.dartmouth.edu/~dons/part_1/chapter_6.html

 

With conduction deafness, sound transmits best to the side of the deafness. This is thought to occur because ambient sound is prevented from getting to the cochlea on the blocked side. This causes the nervous system to amplify sounds on that side by sensitizing cochlear transduction. You can demonstrate this yourself by plugging an ear with your finger, causing conduction deafness, and then humming. The sound will be heard better on the occluded side.
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Sorry if the answer doesn't satisfy you, but that is the answer. Plug one of your ears and do the webers, or you can even demonstrate this by plugging an ear and humming. Where do you hear the greatest sound?

 

ETA: Note, it's note going to be a huge difference, but if you will notice that the sound feels just off of midline.

 

good call in plugging the ear. thanks, makes sense.

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