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Hello! I have a new case for y'all. It's not very complicated, but there are some important take-home points.

 

51yo obese white female with PMHx of menorrhagia and anemia x 1 year (followed by GYN) and DVT of right cephalic vein 9m ago treated with coumadin x 3m presents to Family Practice with "knot on back of leg."

 

Where do you start? (Remember to go in order:HPI/histories, ROS, PE, etc. before ordering any tests).

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Knot is at the posterior calf, started acutely 5 days ago and stable since. Exacerbated by walking, she has not taken anything to attempt to relieve it. No trauma, bruising, itching, or erythema/warmth. When asked about what she did last week, pt reports flying for 3 hours on Thursday and 3 hours on Friday shortly before symptoms started.

 

Ok, let's have any other questions y'all want to ask and start to form a differential. We already have Baker's cyst. I'll be gone to a meeting for a few hours, so hopefully some others will have time to join in.

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Fever? Chills? Fatigue? Change in weight or appetite? Change in diet?

Any leg cramps? Varicose veins? Edema?

 

maybe another DVT

 

Ok guys, good job; time for ROS.

GEN: Denies fever, chills, fatigue, recent illness.

CV: Admits to "heart beating a little fast." Denies chest pain, palps, lower extremity edema, varicose veins.

Resp: Admits to DOE for the past 5 days. Denies cough.

GI: Denies N/V/D/C, weight loss, change in appetite.

MSK: See HPI.

 

VS: BP 114/76, HR 96, RR 16, O2 100% on RA, T 98.6.

 

Any new thoughts after that information? What will you be looking for on physical exam?

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Ok guys, good job; time for ROS.

GEN: Denies fever, chills, fatigue, recent illness.

CV: Admits to "heart beating a little fast." Denies chest pain, palps, lower extremity edema, varicose veins.

Resp: Admits to DOE for the past 5 days. Denies cough.

GI: Denies N/V/D/C, weight loss, change in appetite.

MSK: See HPI.

 

VS: BP 114/76, HR 96, RR 16, O2 100% on RA, T 98.6.

 

Any new thoughts after that information? What will you be looking for on physical exam?

 

With that h&p, I would say it is psychosomatic. Ultrasound to rule out DVT?

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Perhaps perform a homan's test?

With the Hx of DOE x 5 days and complaints of tachycardia; I'm concerned about a potential PE.

 

Ding ding ding! So yes, Homan's is controversial. I did do it, and I'll say it was equivocal (hurt her a little, but I wasn't impressed). So, for the PE:

 

GEN: Obese white female in no acute distress.

HEENT: PERRL. Mucus membranes moist. Oropharynx clear.

CV: RRR, no m/r/g. Upper and lower extremity pulses 2+ and symmetric. Cap refill <2sec. No lower extremity edema or tortuous veins.

Resp: CTAB.

MSK: There is an approximately 3cm x 4cm poorly-defined swelling to the proximal posterior calf. No overlying skin changes (no erythema, warmth, bruising). Mildly TTP, no fluctuance. Exam is limited by pt's body habitus.

Skin: pallor throughout

Psych: Nl mood and affect, appropriate insight.

 

Now, for the million dollar question: It is 4:50 in the afternoon in my Family practice clinic. With this history and physical, what do you do? A) Send her home. B) Send her to the ER. C) Order labs/imaging and have her f/u pending results. D) other?

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Considering acute onset, hx of DVT, onset after multiple flights.... probably not a good idea to send her home. Any chance you have access to duplex ultrasound at the office or a place that is open past 5? I hesitate to say ER, but I would rather be wrong than have my patient dead or more sick than when she met me!

Off to bed, good luck all!

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So this is the big judgement call in the case. We don't have anything in-house. Had it been earlier in the day, I would have ordered a STAT Doppler at the hospital and managed her myself when I got the results. But this is one of the limitations of family practice - to get her worked up at that time of day I had to send her to the ER.

 

Ok, so let's all move over and pretend we're now ER PAs (I have all the results by now anyway). What all do you want to order?

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