Jump to content

interesting PANCE questions


Recommended Posts

hello all,

i'm studying for my pance and currently doing questions from the DAVIS' PA exam review: by morton diamond. i hope this book pays off...lol...as one of my study questions book

 

this is one of the question i came across:

 

a 47 year old asthmatic woman suddenly has palpitations. blood pressure is 110/70, pulse 190, respiration is 20. lung exam is normal. no murmur or gallop is heard. ekg shows psvt. which of the following is the preffered initial therapy?

 

a. adenosine

b. metoprolol

c. digoxin

d. verapamil

e. ibutilide

 

answer from the book is verapamil. but i've always learned that it's adenosine. 

can someone please clarify this for me?

if this was on the real pance, my kneejerk reaction would have been adenosine

 

thank you

Link to comment
Share on other sites

From UpToDate:

 

For a hemodynamically stable patient with symptomatic AT, we suggest acute treatment with an oral or intravenous beta blocker or non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker (ie, diltiazem or verapamil). Such treatment may slow the ventricular response and/or terminate the arrhythmia. Intravenous amiodarone is an acceptable alternative that may be preferred in a patient with borderline hypotension as amiodarone may slow the rate or convert the rhythm back to normal sinus.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

okayy, so then i was answering more questions from the pance kaplin purple book (it's the book that comes with 2 of 300 questions practice test). they say the first line therapy is adenosine lol.....i really hope when i take the real pance, that it won't come down to this deciding question of pass or fail....but i think i'll go with adenosine on the real pance.....

p.s: i was going to attach some pictures of the questions and explainations but i can't seem to find the option of attaching pictures on here

Link to comment
Share on other sites

  • 7 months later...
  • 3 weeks later...

In other words, adenosine would be the correct answer, per ACLS, if the patient were unstable.

 

Which is the wrong answer to slow her heart rate and why?

 

it's actually preferred (after vagal maneuver) if stable - if unstable (ie: hypotension, ischemic chest pain, heart issues, etc) per ACLS it's synchronized cardioversion 

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Archived

This topic is now archived and is closed to further replies.

×
×
  • Create New...

Important Information

Welcome to the Physician Assistant Forum! This website uses cookies to ensure you get the best experience on our website. Learn More